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ENROLL
Courses
Personal Training
Sports Massage
Gym Instructor
Strength & Conditioning
Pilates
Yoga
Group Training
CPD
Exercise Referral
Venues
Peterborough
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About Us
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L3 PT – Anatomy Physiology and Kinesiology for Exercise and Health – Unit 1 (Exam)
1. Which of the following is a function of a heart valve?
To pump Oxygenated blood to the body
To pull deoxygenated blood back in to the body
Prevents unwanted back flow of blood into the chambers
Prevent Oxygenated blood reaching the body
2. Which of the following describes coronary circulation?
The term used to describe the blood moving around the body
The term used to describe circulation of blood to the heart
The term to describe high blood pressure
The term to describe low blood pressure
3. The build-up of plaque as a result of the accumulation of minerals proteins and fats causes blood vessels to?
Become sticky
Become wider
Become more flexible
Become more flexible
4. Which of the following is a short-term effect of Exercise?
Increase in diastolic blood pressure
No change
Increase in systolic blood pressure
Will reduce blood pressure
5. Which of the following is a long-term effect of Exercise?
Reduce blood pressure
Increased blood pressure
No change
Can cause onset of hypertension
6. Which of the following describes the cardiac cycle?
When the heart is relaxing
When the heart is contracting
When the heart is beating at its fastest
A sequence of contracting and relaxing to pump blood to the body
7. Where does oxygenated blood enter after the pulmonary vein?
Left atrium
Right atrium
Right ventricle
Left ventricle
8. Which of the following is the outer layer of the whole muscle?
Perimysium
Endomysium
Epimysium
Sarcolemma
9. Which of the following are the two contractile proteins active in the sliding filament theory?
Actin and haemoglobin
Actin and myosin
Myosin and haemoglobin
Myosin and Troponin
10. Which of the following must be present for the myosin and actin to bind?
Calcium
Troponin
Tropomyosin
Fasciculi
11. Which of the following is an effect of aerobic long slow endurance training on type I or type IIa muscle fibres?
Reduction in mitochondria
Increased anaerobic enzyme levels
Increased phosphocreatine stores
Improved efficiency and work capacity
12. Which of the following is an effect of anaerobic and heavy resistance training on type IIa or type IIb muscle fibres?
No change
Increased aerobic enzymes
Increased phosphocreatine stores
Reduction in mitochondria
13. Which of the following is the origin attachment site for the latissimus dorsi?
Scapula
Clavicle
Sacrum
Humerus
14. Which of the following is the origin attachment site for the rectus femoris?
Femur
Greater trochanter
Anterior superior iliac spine
Tibia
15. Which of the following is the origin attachment site for the gluteus medius?
Sacrum
Iliac crest
Coccyx
Femur
16. Which of the following is an action of the gluteus maximus?
Extend hip
Knee extension
Flex hip
Laterally flex the spine
17. Which of the following is an action of the latissimus dorsi?
Extend elbow
Flex elbow
Abduct shoulder
Adduct Shoulder
18. Which of the following is an action of the rectus femoris?
Flexion of the knee
Extension of the knee
Extension of the hip
Ankle flexion
19. Which of the following is an action of the biceps femoris?
Flexion of the elbow
Extension of the elbow
Flexion of the knee
Extension of the knee
20. Which of the following is an action of the soleus?
Dorsiflexion of the ankle
Plantarflexion of the ankle
Inversion of the ankle
Flexion of the knee
21. Which of the following is an action of the pectoralis major?
Horizontally adduct shoulder
Flex elbow
Depress scapula
Extend elbow
22. Which of the following is an action of the trapezius?
Elevate and retract shoulders
Flex Pectoralis major
Depress and upwardly rotate shoulders
Flex latissimus dorsi
23. Identify the actions, plane of movement and axis of movement of the shoulder joint from the list below:
Rotation, transverse, medial-lateral
Rotation, Frontal, Anterior-posterior
Flexion, extension, sagittal, longitudinal
Plantarflexion, dorsiflexion, sagittal, longitudinal
24. Identify the actions, plane of movement and axis of movement of the elbow joint from the list below:
Rotation, Frontal, Anterior-posterior
Plantarflexion, dorsiflexion, sagittal, longitudinal
Abduction, adduction, frontal, longitudinal
Flexion, extension, Sagittal, medial-lateral
25. Identify the actions, plane of movement and axis of movement of the spine joint from the list below:
Rotation, transverse, Longitudinal
Adduction, sagittal, longitudinal
Abduction, sagittal, longitudinal
Plantarflexion, dorsiflexion, sagittal, longitudinal
26. Identify the actions, plane of movement and axis of movement of the hip joint from the list below:
Extension, dorsiflexion, Frontal, medial-lateral
Flexion, dorsiflexion, Frontal, medial-lateral
Internal – external rotation, transverse, Longitudinal
Plantarflexion, dorsiflexion, sagittal, longitudinal
27. Identify the actions, plane of movement and axis of movement of the knee joint from the list below:
Flexion, extension, sagittal, medial-lateral
Rotation, transverse, Longitudinal
Adduction, sagittal, longitudinal
Plantarflexion, dorsiflexion, sagittal, longitudinal
28. Identify the actions, plane of movement and axis of movement of the ankle joint:
Flexion, extension, sagittal, medial-lateral
Rotation, transverse, Longitudinal
Adduction, sagittal, longitudinal
Plantarflexion, dorsiflexion, sagittal, medial-lateral
29. Name the type of joint at the shoulder.
Ball and socket
Ellipsoid
Saddle
Hinge
30. Name the type of joint at the wrist.
Ellipsoid
Saddle
Gliding
Ball and socket
31. Name the type of joint at the axis of the cervical vertebrae.
Saddle
Hinge
Ellipsoid
Pivot
32. Name the type of joint at the thumb.
Saddle
Pivot
Ellipsoid
Hinge
33. Name the type of joint at the hip.
Pivot
Saddle
Hinge
Ball and socket
34.Name the type of joint at the knee.
Hinge
Pivot
Ball and socket
Saddle
35. Name the type of joint at the knuckles.
Hinge
Saddle
Ellipsoid
Gliding
36. Which of the following is a characteristic of a cartilaginous joint?
Slightly moveable
Immovable
Freely movable
Rotation
37. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Fibrous joint?
Slightly moveable
Immovable
Freely movable
Extension
38. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Synovial joint?
Slightly moveable
Immovable
Freely movable
Elbow rotation
39. Which of the following cartilaginous joints unite the left and right pubic bones?
Mid tarsal
Pubis symphysis
Mid carpal
Vertebrae
40. Which of the following is a function of the pelvic muscles?
Support the elbow joint
Support internal organs
Stabilise the ankle
Support the cranium
41. Identify one of the 4 main ligaments that run the length of the spine?
Rectus abdominis
Interspinous ligaments
Transversus abdominis
Pelvic floor
42. Which of the following describes what is referred to as good core function?
The ability to lift heavy weights
The ability to jump high
The ability to run fast
The ability of the trunk to support and transfer the forces of the arms and legs in the safest, strongest, and most effective way
43. Which of the following is a possibility of poor core stability?
Strong lower body
Strong upper body
Over reliance on global muscles closer to the surface causing possible muscle spasms
Ability to do less sit ups
44. Which of the following is an effect of abdominal adiposity?
Shifts the centre of gravity and Improves the efficiency of movement patterns
Makes a person’s postural position more efficient
Shifts the centre of gravity leading to increased chance of postural deviations
No effect
45. Which of the following defines optimal posture?
All 3 curves of the spine cervical thoracic and lumbar in good alignment
Standing with soft knees
The person feels no pain
Lying on a flat surface
46. Which of the following is a common postural deviation?
Interspinous
Kyphosis
Intertransverse
Multifidus
47. Which of the following is a characteristic in static maintenance stretching?
Hold for 15 – 30 seconds
Bounce whilst holding the stretch
Involves 4 stages
Hold for 90 seconds
48. Which of the following is a characteristic in developmental stretching?
Hold for 10 – 15 seconds
Involves only one stage
Is a progressive stretch where the limb is stretched slightly further each time
Stretch as far as you can beyond the muscle end range
49. Which of the following is a characteristic in proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching?
Stretch as far as you can beyond the muscle end range
Hold stretches for 90 seconds
Can only be done standing up
A muscle group is passively stretched and then isometrically contracted for 7 – 15 seconds
50. Which of the following is a role played by the central nervous system (CNS)?
The CNS is made up of the brain and spinal cord
The central nervous system is divided into somatic and autonomic systems
Only controls the arms and legs
Only controls the lower body
51. Which of the following is a role played by the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?
The PNS is made up of the brain and spinal cord
The PNS controls only the internal organs
All the nerves outside the spinal cord form the PNS
The PNS has no control over movement
52. The peripheral nervous system is further split into which of the following?
Rotatores
Reciprocal inhibition systems
Automatic and Sensation systems
Somatic and autonomic systems
53. Which of the following describes the structure and function of a neuron?
A long cable like structure that transmits action potential
Wire like structure which allows signals to travel from one part of the body to another
A small sack of cells which transmit signals
A large sack of cells which transmit signals
54. Explain the role of a motor unit.
Responsible for muscular contractions
Responsible for protein synthesis
Responsible for delivering nutrients throughout the body
Responsible for autogenic inhibition
55. Which of the following describes the process in which the muscular system relates to the nervous system?
The motor unit will only parts of the motor unit that it is told to
There is no link between the muscular system and the nervous system
A motor unit cannot vary the amount of force they generate. They either contract maximally or not at all – All or none law
A motor unit can vary the amount they contract and the force they generate
56. Which of the following describes the stretch reflex?
The stretch reflex is a protective mechanism for preventing muscle tears caused by over stretching
The stretch reflex is the concentric part of a contraction
The stretch reflex is the eccentric part of a contraction
The stretch reflex only happens under maximal loads
57. Which of the following describes reciprocal inhibition?
Opposing muscles contract at the same time
The agonist must be relaxed for the antagonist to antagonist to contract
The antagonist must be relaxed for the agonist to contract
Opposing muscles relax at the same time
58. Which of the following describes autogenic inhibition?
Is a relaxation response caused by the Golgi tendon organ
Is a relaxation response cause by the motor neuron
Causes the muscle to contract harder
Is a relaxation response caused by the motor unit
59. Which of the following is a neuromuscular adaptation associated with exercise / training?
Will have no effect on exercise / training
Less reciprocal inhibition
Smoother more accurate movement patterns will lead to greater performance
Decrease in muscle proprioceptor’s
60. Which of the following is a function of the endocrine system?
Improves muscle contractions
Controls the resting heart rate
Develops neuromuscular pathways
Helps maintain homeostasis
61. Which of the following are major glands in the endocrine system?
Pancreas, Pituitary
Haemoglobin, Medullary
Heart, lungs
Perimysium, Epimysium
62. Which of the following is a function of the pancreas?
Regulates testosterone
Produces growth hormone
Helps control carbohydrate metabolism
Is our currency for energy
63. Which of the following is a characteristic of the aerobic energy system?
Very rapid source of energy
Provides energy for 1 – 3 minutes of intense exercise
No fatiguing waste products
Short duration 0 – 10 seconds
64. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Lactate energy system?
High Intensity 75 – 85% max effort
No fatiguing waste products
Long duration
Short duration 0 – 10 seconds
65. Which of the following is a characteristic of the creatine phosphate system?
Short duration 0 – 10 seconds
Long slow duration
1 – 3 minutes intense exercise
Uses glycogen as fuel
66. Which of the following provides the fuel for an endurance event?
Chemical energy
Glycogen
Glycogen and fats
Protein
67. Which energy system would participants of a 100m sprint race rely on?
Aerobic system
Creatine phosphate system
Lactate system
Respiratory system
68. Which energy system would Rugby players rely on in an 80-minute match?
Aerobic system
Lactate system
Creatine phosphate system
All three energy systems would interchange dependant on events of the game
69. Which of the following is a bone in the skull?
Tibia
Cranium
femur
humerus
70. Which of the following is a function of the bones in the skull?
Movement
Production
Attachment
Protection
71. Which of the following is a bone in the Spine?
Vertebrae
Patella
Ulna
Carpals
72. Which of the following is a function of the bones in the spine?
Movement
Circumduction
Rotation
Protection
73. Which of the following is a bone in the Chest?
Pelvic girdle
Clavicle
Sternum
metacarpals
74. Which of the following is a function of the bones in the chest?
Flexion and extension
Circumduction
Rotation
Protection
75. Which of the following is a bone in the Shoulder?
Sternum
Clavicle
Humerus
Ulna
76. Which of the following is a function of the bones in the shoulder?
Movement
Protection
production
flexion
77. Which of the following is a bone in the Arm?
Ulna
Tibia
Femur
fibula
78. Which of the following is a function of the bones in the arm?
Protection
Compression
Movement
Contract
79. Which of the following is a bone in the Hand?
Metacarpals
Sacrum
tarsals
Metatarsals
80. Which of the following is a function of the bones in the hand?
Production
Stability
Movement and grip
protection
81. Which of the following is a bone in the Pelvis?
Femur
Pelvic gridle
Tibia
Sacrum girdle
82. Which of the following is a function of the bones in the pelvis?
Production
Flexion
Extension
Protection
83. Which of the following is a bone in the Leg?
Femur
Humerus
ulna
Clavicle
84. Which of the following is a function of the bones in the leg?
Extension
Protection
Flexion
Movement
85. Which of the following is a bone in the Foot?
carpals
Metacarpals
Patella
Calcaneus
86. Which of the following is a function of the bones in the foot?
Extension
Protection
Flexion
Movement
87. Which of the following describes osteoblasts?
Bone breaking down
Bone remodelling
Remove old bone
Bone builders and form new bone
88. Which of the following describes ossification?
Process in which bones of the skeleton are formed
Process in which bones are removed
Process in which bones are destroyed
disease of the bone
89. Which of the following is an effect of exercise in the skeletal system?
Increased bone density
Decreased range of motion
Increased risk of bone disease
Decreased strength of ligaments
90. Which of the following is a risk of exercise to the skeletal system?
Increased density
Fracture
Poor alignment
Increase range of motion
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